So if you haven't seen Rudolph's article on Paul's "rule" in 1 Cor. 7:18, check it out
here. Rudolph contends that Paul was anti-Judaization. Here's the main verse in question:
"Was a man already circumcised when he was called? He should not become uncircumcised. Was a man uncircumcised when he was called? He should not be circumcised." (1 Cor. 7:18)
It occurred to me the other night that you can either view Paul as maximally, minimally, or moderately in terms of Judaizing (or you could see him as being anti-Judaization). I think of Paul as being pro-Judaization of Gentiles. And I think of him of encouraging a maximal level of Judaization (i.e. I think he encourages Gentiles to follow Jewish practices). The only caveat is that he seems to take into account certain first-century exigencies such as the anti-grace circumcision doctrines of certain Yeshua-believing Pharisees (see Acts 15:1; Gal. 5) when he says thinks like he does in 1 Cor. 7:18.
But let's get back to Rudolph. By the way, I love Rudolph even if I disagree with him on some things. Okay, let's begin.
Rudolph starts off by saying that Paul in 1 Cor. 7:20 links "klesis" (situation) and "kaleo" (called). In linking these concepts, Rudolph argues that Paul believes that circumcision (Jewishness) and foreskin (Gentileness) are callings.
What does this mean practically? Well, Rudolph says that Gentiles should identify as being excluded from Torah:
"Paul describes circumcision as integrally related to Torah observance (Jewish identity), and lack of Torah observance is indicative of foreskin (Gentile identity). Circumcision is incomplete without the circumcised life."
Furthermore, Rudolph makes the claim that Paul differentiated between Jewish commandments and Gentile commandments:
"If the [calling to a particular way of life] differed between Jew and Gentile (1 Cor. 7:18-20), it is plausible that Paul, a first century Jew from a Pharisaic background, held that [G-d's] commandments for Jews and Gentiles differed as well."
The problem with Rudolph's assertion that Paul differentiates between Jewish commandments and Gentiles commandments is not in the text. On the contrary, Paul seems to eradicate such a distinction:
"Circumcision is nothing and uncircumcision is nothing: Keeping God's commands is what counts."
There is no place in Paul's writings where he says "Gentiles must live a non-Jewish lifestyle." Quite the opposite. Paul commands Gentiles to reject Gentilism (paganism) and adopt the beliefs and practices of Judaism (e.g. the belief in the Jewish Messiah as Savior, the keeping of Jewish customs like ritual immersion and the keeping moedim and kashrut).
Here's the other thing: in the same chapter (1 Cor. 7), Paul says to virgins "
Do not look for a wife."
So does Paul really think that men shouldn't look for a spouse? If Paul was remotely Torah-observant then, knowing that the mitzva to procreate is mentioned first in the Tanak, it's impossible that Paul could be discouraging virgins from getting married. Paul wouldn't preach against the Torah. It's more likely that Paul understood that marriage is inevitable and natural for most people.
What's my point?
My point is that if Paul says that virgins shouldn't seek to get married (but actually believes that they should get married and that marriage is good) then it follows that when Paul says in the same chapter that Gentiles shouldn't seek to become circumcised that he might actually believe that Gentiles should get circumcised and that circumcision is a good.
So why did he say the opposite of what he really felt? Well, enough of my opinions! I want to hear from you, dear readers. What do you think Paul meant? Do you agree with Rudolph's interpretation of Paul's "rule"? Or is the "rule" against circumcision like the "rule" against marriage? (i.e. not really a rule at all).